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Talmid Posts: 102 |
Glenn, I think you have me confused with someone else. Either that or you spell YermeYah really badly. ![]() However, regarding the post there is no certain evidence that the gospels were originally written in greek, or there would be little to no dissention on the topic. Is it not possible that the originals were written in Hebrew, then translated to Greek for the gentiles? Why isn't the name Yahushua in the Greek manuscripts? Apparently you can't write Yahushua in Greek. "In any case, the evidence for the Gospels originally being written in Hebrew or Aramaic just doesn't stack up." I will never settle for theories attempting to be passed as truth. Ever. In truth, [This message has been edited by Talmid (edited 05-04-2001).] IP: Logged |
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YermeYah Posts: 295 |
Shalom, Richard7, thanks for pointing out about Palestine not being the name of the promised land. The fact is, Palestine comes from the word Philistine. I sure do prefer Israel! Yahushua said to the Samaritan woman at the well...
I wonder if that is why churchianity is so adamant about the new testament being originally written in Greek? That way, they can say that they have the authority to call the Heavenly Father "Lord" which is what the name Baal means, thus breaking the 3rd commandment, not to take the name of YHWH in vain. And they call His Son by a corrupted name that has no power to save.
If the New Testament was originally written in Hebrew, which I am convicted that it was, then people will still be obligated to follow the Law of YHWH and to honor Him by His true name, and by the Name that He gave to His Son Yahushua.
YermeYah [This message has been edited by YermeYah (edited 05-04-2001).] IP: Logged |
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Jozef Posts: 425 |
Glenn asked My SECOND QUESTION is this - when Paul wrote in Greek, how did he write the saviour's name? Answering this question is easy, just refer to any Greek text of the New Testament. I'll make the answer really easy, just fill in the blank int his sentence: When Paul, while writing his epistles in Greek (e.g. Romans, 1 Corinthians etc) referred to the Son of God by name, he wrote down the name
Glenn Well I have a question too My question: which letters would Paul have used to write the MOST set apart Holy name YHWH ? The profane and secondary Greek rendering 'Kurios'? and break the most important of the 10 commandments Exodus 20:7? Did Yahushua not teach us to Hallow the Fathers Name, rather than to substitute? If so than also his own name, for the Fathers name is incorporated in his own, and ours in theirs. I do not call myself by a greek name 'christian', but rather Messianic. This sets us somewhat apart. You went to a Christian bible college, does that make you more superior? I am just a humble believer who is not impressed with phd nor degree from worldly scources. If it does not witness to my spirit, all this learning is just clinging cymbals and a lot of rattling noise to me. YHWH seeks the meek to profound the learned. 'Meekness' is a fruit of the spirit, not arguing, for that turns me right off. [This message has been edited by Jozef (edited 05-05-2001).] IP: Logged |
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Theonomy Posts: 21 |
Jozef You quoted me, and changed it like this: When Paul, while writing his epistles in Greek (e.g. Romans, 1 Corinthians etc) referred to the Son of God by name, he wrote down the name YHUSHU` (although you used a graphic image) with Hebrew letters.
You then asked me what word Paul used for the name YHWH. Well, the manuscripts show us (in back and white!) that he used the word Kurios. This is also the word used in the Septuagint, the Scriptures Paul quoted from. This is simple truth.
Shalom PS - I apologise if my postings appear to be unmeek - but I don't see my comments tpwrds those who are sincere towards me as being anything other than honest, sincere and peaceable. IP: Logged |
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Theonomy Posts: 21 |
To James Trimm: Earlier, in defence of the general consensus that Paul's letters were written in Greek, I pointed out that the earliest Manuscripts of his writing that we have are in Greek, not Aramaic (or Hebrew). You responded by saying: quote: True, and point well taken. But note that I never denied this. What you're talking about are ENTIRE New Testament copies. I'm only talking about New Testament manuscripts. And I assume you are aware that the oldest NT manuscripts are in fact in Greek. You also added: quote: Again you are correct. And while at first it might sound like an effective counter example, there is a good reason why the two cases are not the same. At the time the earlier parts of the Tanakh were written, the people group (i.e. the Hebrews) did not have access to the Greek language! In addition, there were already historical accounts of the translation of the Tanakh INTO Greek from Hebrew. We have no such accounts regarding the New Testament. Shalom IP: Logged |
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Theonomy Posts: 21 |
Talmid: You say: quote: Of course it is. It also possible that the Gospels were written in Egyptian by early converts and THEN translated into Greek and Hebrew. The theoretical POSSIBILITIES are endless, I suppose. But the question for truth-seekers is: Which way does the evidence point? Shalom IP: Logged |
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Talmid Posts: 102 |
Glenn,
quote: The following study can be found on Eliyah's Home Page. Many take the third commandment to mean that we should not curse Yahweh's name. It certainly does mean this. However it also means that we should not replace His name with a substitute such as "the Lord" Deut 5:11 (av) Thou shalt not take the name of Yahweh thy Elohim in vain <7723>: for Yahweh will not hold [him] guiltless that taketh his name in vain <7723>. The number after the word "vain" in this passage refers to Strong's word #7723 in the Hebrew Lexicon. This Hebrew word is "Shav" which means desolating, vain, vanity, or falsehood. Now let us look here in these same ten commandments where we will find this same Hebrew word but it is translated differently: Deut 5:20 (av) Neither shalt thou bear false <7723> witness against thy neighbour. Here we have the same Hebrew word <7723> translated false! Now what have people done to Yahweh's name? It has been falsified! It has been taken out of the way thereby making it vain. Therefore, the third commandment could easily be translated: "Thou shalt not falsify the name of Yahweh thy Elohim: for Yahweh will not hold (him) guiltless that falsifies His name" So if we want to keep the ten commandments, we should never replace Yahweh's name with a false one. Doing so would be breaking the third commandment. END STUDY Now if using a false name is indeed breaking the commandment, then Paul would be breaking a commandment in doing so, which he would not do. By this we realise that he cannot have used the word Kurios. The cornerstone in this argument is the definition of the third commandment. If you disagree, then prove this definition wrong. In Truth, [This message has been edited by Talmid (edited 05-05-2001).] IP: Logged |
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Jozef Posts: 425 |
Shalom, quote: But clearly the way you've changed this statement is nonsense. Why would Paul while writing "in Greek" use Hebrew letters? unquote. 1) because he could. 2) because he should. 3) because he did. But Glenn what makes you so sure that the original letters of Paul did NOT have them? because we have the watered down and doctored versions Come Glenn,.... lets not argue... but lets pray: Dear heavenly Father, who's name is YHWH and who's name is ONE, King of the Universe, We are calling for your Kingdome to be in our midst, and for us to understand your Kingdom policies and your Kingdom Laws. Jozef IP: Logged |
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Minnesota Marlin Posts: 256 |
Br.Bill, _________ You said: "It was about 15 years that my wife and I came up with the same word study ----------> "not destroy them" <---------- _____________ Isaiah 66:17 ----------> [eating swine's flesh], (PIG MEAT) and the abomination, and the mouse, shall be consumed (destroyed) >>>>------------> "[shall be consumed (destroyed) together]" Do most je/sus people eat swine/pig meat?______Yes______No Br Bill, why does YAHHU want to destroy ----> these "PIG MEAT EATERS"? From Isa.66:17, >>>>------------> "[shall be consumed (destroyed) together]" It don't sound to me that YAHHU wants to pamper these _________ "But Glenn what makes you so sure that the original Br Bill, The --> [Catholic church] used/uses the Latin language. Matthew 24:24 For -----> [false Christs] and false prophets will appear and perform From Latin bible: Matthew 1:16 natus est ---> "Iesus" qui vocatur Mark 2:5 Mark 9:26 "Iesus autem tenens manum eius elevavit illum et" "Ie/sus" in Latin (i.e.) means => "that is", and sus means => "pig" _________________ As our Saviour said "You shall Love your neighbor as yourself" (Matt.22:39) and when I was a Christian and calling Br. Bill, in todays parlance its called ---> [tough love]. Isaiah 58:1 Heb.4:12 Now, we have our doubts about Jesus meaning the pig being of a true Matthew 24:24 For -----> [false Christs] and false prophets will appear and perform I am sure that all Christians would rather hear, "the anointed healer" "Oh! How ugly" Isaiah 30:10 _________ Now,I wonder where do we go from here with the name "Jesus"? <> MN Marlin IP: Logged |
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BrBill Posts: 32 |
MN. MARLIN, Surely I will not agree with the name jesus no matter what the true meaning of the name is either in the Greek or the Latin language. At one time I thought jesus was the correct name. I did not eat pork or anything that contained pig meat in it or was made from pig. Neither did anyone else in the church that I attended. Yet, we were (as you put it ) Jesus people. You asked: At this time I would like to mention something about Isaiah 66:17. Isaiah 66:17-----is also talking about Idolatry. As we study the scriptures we can see how Yahweh always punished Israel for committing Idolatry. Not to commit Isolatry is part of the Royal Law found in Deuteronomy. Deut.5:8 The people in Isaiah 66:17, do not love Yahweh. They hate Him and they will not repent. Here, He is not talking about those who are trying to obey and obeying in ignorance but those who are Rebellious and Rebelliousness is as witchcraft. 1Samuel 15:23 You said: If you do not let this fruit work in you, you can not help a person see the truth. You are not edifying the Body of Yahshua. Be a light. Matt.5:14-16 You Quote Isaiah 58:1 Jeremiah 9:23----Thus says Yahweh You Quote from the prophets: I said: Surely there is one thing we shall say to them and that is that Jesus is not the true name of the Messiah. Without offending them in any matter. 1Cor.3:6-7 Shalom. BrBill [This message has been edited by BrBill (edited 05-09-2001).] IP: Logged |
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Grace Posts: 56 |
BrBill: Great post! You are indeed a watchman! I tried to E-mail you directly but your listed E-mail is coming up as as an invalid address when I try to send it. Let us know if there is another address we can use....Thanks! Blessings, Grace IP: Logged |
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BrBill Posts: 32 |
Grace, Thanks very much for the compliment but let us all praise Yahweh for His Holy Spirit in us. HalleluYah! Without Yahweh we are nothing. We plant, we water, but Yahweh gives the increase. HalleluYah! 1Cor.3:6-7 My e-mail address is pinset00@hotmail.com maybe you typed the o key for the two 00's. Try typing the zero key for the two 00's it should work. At this time my e-mail address is working fine. If it still doesn't work let me know. Shalom BrBill [This message has been edited by BrBill (edited 05-10-2001).] IP: Logged |
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LostSon Posts: 12 |
Greetings and Guidance in the name of Yah and His son Yahshua, I do not know how far to take this dispute over the meaning of JESUS. What is very plain, is that it could not, by any means, be his name. In that, we all agree. Now, there is the subject of: Did the apostles use this translitered name, which, I am guessing, would then make it okay for us to use it. No one knows for certain. I know that all scholars agree that all new testament manuscripts found are copies of copies. That in itself should indicate something when considering the era of the writings. One thing that the scriptures do support is a teshuva (return) to Hebrew language: Zeph 3:9. HalleluYah!!! Then this whole thread would be superfluos. It honestly would not surprise me if Jesus did mean "the pig". Just on real level, why use such a tainted name when concering our saviour. If we know his name to be Yahshua why not use, when it holds so much meaning. To use the name alone is statement of faith: "Yah is salvation", but Jesus....? I, honestly, do not know what to make of kirkians, as to whether they attain salvation or not. For as we all know salvaion and the reception of the Ruah HaQodesh is not through the keeping of law, but through faith. - Acts 15:8-11 without which none of us would be justified - Habakkuk 2:4. Yet, faith without works is dead,Ya'acov 2:20, show me your faith without works and I will show you my faith by my works, Ya'acov 2:18. That to me says faith leads to works (i.e. study, be doers and not just hearers). The Goyim who were turning to Yah received the Ruah, but were expected to be in the synogogue learning of Yah's Word and practicing it - ICor 5:8, I Cor 11:1-2. On one hand, I agree with Minnesota: Let's strive to separate ourselves from such apostate and heretic institutions as the Roman Catholic kirk and the certain doctrines of the Protestants ..." Thus says Yah: LostSon Shalom [This message has been edited by LostSon (edited 05-12-2001).] [This message has been edited by LostSon (edited 05-12-2001).] IP: Logged |
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Naomi Posts: 100 |
. [This message has been edited by Naomi (edited 10-28-2001).] IP: Logged |
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Jozef Posts: 425 |
Shalom, Excellent point Naomi, Jozef IP: Logged |
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