Re: Passover: 14th or 15th?/questions to Daniel


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Posted by Chris lingle on March 15, 1998 at 10:28:15:

In Reply to: Passover: 14th or 15th? posted by Daniel on March 14, 1998 at 21:53:51:

: To Chris & Eliyah,

To All,

Below Daniel has challenged us all. I want all of you to realize that Historians consider the 14-21st with the 15th High Sabbath a Samaritan System. I have dubbed it Samaritan System A. Because, the 14-21st with the 14th as a High Sabbath is also considered a Samaritan System. We may consider it Samaritan System B. However, I would like everyone to realize that I have dubbed it the Nazarene System as History shows that they kept an 8 day system. The Nazarene System is defended in my article at www.nazarene.net Many of us however, on this discussion group should be able to show Daniel the utter deficiency of the Rabbinic Passover 15-21st.

1) The Exodus Scenario does not support it.
2) Yahushua's Passover Seder does not support it.

if anyone really reads my article they will be able to see that the Rabbinic Passover does not cut it.

Daniel, I would like you to go read my article. I also have a few other questions for you:

1) How is it that you believe in the Pharisaic Pentecost (counting from 16th Nisan to Sivan 6?) This System is manifestly in error and is not the Nazarene System or Yahweh's.

2) What is this propondency of yours to say Yayshua with 2 "y"s. Come on man this is just silly to the hilt.

3) You take the Masoretic Chronology for the Antedilluvian Kings as Textually accurrate and arrive at 4139 BCE for the Year of Adam as one does if he takes the Masoretic Chronology. Hell, why don't you just take the LXX numbers and arive at around 5500 BCE! Either way you pass the 6,000 year mark at least 150 years ago! I guess the Kingdom has already been established in another dimension and were all messed! Come on man, you need to collate the Samaritan Penteteuch, the Lxx and the Masoretic to straighten the proper chronology out as there are numerous problems with the texts. Why do you insist on this blunder? Most Biblical Chronologists today have realized this.


: Any comments on this?

: "Yahweh your Elohim brought you out of Mistrayim by night" (Devarim 16:1). This would be between midnight and sunrise on the 15th of Aviv.
: "You shall sacrifice the Passover at setting as as goes the sun in the season you came out of Mitsrayim" (Dev. 16:6). That would be between noon and sunset on the 14th of Aviv.
: "And you shall cook it and eat at the place which Yahweh your Elohim will choose in it, and you shall turn in the morning and go to your tents" (Morning = begins at midnight on the 15th, Devarim. 16:7).
: "Six days you shall eat unleavened bread." That would be 15th, 16th, 17th, 18th, 19th, 20th, and "on the seventh day a solemn assembly ..." = the 21st of Aviv.

: Now if the Passover was eaten at the beginning of the 14th, would it not be seven days instead of six days, and then the holy convocation? So then, either Ezra changed the Law, or the words "you shall offer THE PASSOVER" in vs. 6 do not mean what they always mean in Hebrew?

: In the first month on the fourteenth day of the month, between the settings: Yahweh's Passover. (Lev. 23:5).
:
: "And you shall keep it until the fourteenth day of this month, and you shall kill it, the whole assembled congregation of Yisra'ayl between the settings" (Exodus 12:6).

: "Day" taken in the usual sense here, means the daylight part of the 14th. Between the settings is defined in Num. 28:1-3:

: TWO LAMBS to the day ... the first lamb in the morning and the second lamb BETWEEN THE SETTINGS...

: Ask yourself. Was the evening sacrifice ever offered after sunset? Would it be the same day? Would this agree with II Chron. 2:3, "the morning and the evening offering for the sabbath"? Would the evening offering still be for the sabbath if offered after sunset?

: Why do you suppose that John is always careful to say that Yayshua went to the "Jewish Passover"? Well, he did'nt want anyone to think he went to the Samaritan Passover.

:
: If the the lamb was eaten at the beginning of the 14th, and they did not go out of Egypt until the night of the 15th (some 12 hours later --at least) then why does the scripture say that had no provisions, and no time for bread to leaven?

: 1. Normally, the first day means the first day, not the day before.
: 2. Normally, the Samaritians were enemies of the Jews.
: 3. Normally, the reason for no provisions is no time.
: 4. Normally, between the settings means the afternoon of the 14th.
: 5. Normally, Deut. 16:6-8 + 6 days would refute the Samaritan Passover.
:
: Challenege: Is there any instance where "between the settings" does not mean the afternoon?
:
: Daniel

: P.S.

: Let's see

:
:





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